Ezekiel Elliott will “choose between the Eagles, Jets and Bengals” after his release from the Cowboys.

Former Cowboys running back Ezekiel Elliott has all but three of the NFL elite’s favorite next franchises.

NFC champions Philadelphia Eagles, AFC powerhouse Cincinnati Bengals and resurgent New York Jets are the “options” available to the former Ohio State standout.

“Elliott has narrowed down his options on where to play for the Eagles, Jets and Bengals and he wants to make his decision on where to sign by the end of next week, according to sources.” Schefter wrote on Thursday.

The two-time rushing champion was officially released by Dallas on March 15. Jerry Jones decided to use the franchise tag for Elliott’s former stablemate Tony Pollard, leaving Big D little wiggle room.

Elliott would have cost $16.7 million against the cap if Dallas had retained the former No. 4 overall in 2023.

Ex-DAL running back Ezekiel Elliott will choose between PHI, CIN and NYJ for his new team

In 2019, after a brief delay, Elliott signed a six-year, $90 million deal with the Cowboys.

Since overtime concluded, Elliott rushed for 979, 1002, and 876, respectively, in subsequent seasons.

The modest 876 was a career low for Elliott last season, who shared responsibility with Pollard.

Elliott spent seven years with the organization and ranks third in franchise history with 8,262 rushing yards. He also had 68 rushings and 80 total touchdowns during his time in Frisco, TX.

New York could enlist Elliott’s services as sophomore star Breece Hall continues his rehab after suffering a cruciate ligament rupture last season while the franchise awaits the seemingly imminent addition of Aaron Rodgers.

Meanwhile, Philadelphia only has Rashaad Penny and Boston Scott in its backfield corps.

As for Cincinnati, the Bengals could give Elliott a similar position to his Dallas days and pair him with Joe Mixon.